Brethren: In John 8:24, Christ says to the unbelieving Pharisees--for whose sins as well as for the sins of the whole world He would die upon the Cross and make Universal Atonement--"I said therefore unto you, that YE SHALL DIE IN YOUR SINS: FOR IF YE BELIEVE NOT THAT I AM HE, YE SHALL DIE IN YOUR SINS."
Now, according to UOJ, when Jesus rose again at Easter, the sins of the Pharisees to whom Jesus is speaking in John 8:24 were forgiven and thus they were justified, along with everyone else, right?
So HOW could Jesus tell these Pharisees that they would "die in your sins"--He repeats it TWICE!--if they do not BELIEVE that Jesus is the Messiah, if the Resurrection declared that their sins were ALREADY forgiven?
And what about 1 Cor. 15:17? "And if Christ be not raised, YOUR FAITH IS IN VAIN; YE ARE YET IN YOUR SINS." Now if this passage didn't mention "your faith," the UOJers could use this passage to say "Resurrection of Christ = Forgiveness of Sins," but the passage DOESN'T say that! It clearly mentions "your faith" so that the equation is "Faith in Christ Who Rose from the Dead = Forgiveness of Sins," and WITHOUT that faith, "Ye are YET IN YOUR SINS."
Again, HOW can ANYONE STILL be "in their sins" if when Christ rose from the dead, the sins of the whole world were forgiven and everyone was justified, according to UOJ? --WM
