Responding to This Justification Post -
From a reader:
Dear Pastor Jackson,
I have struggled for a long time with 2 Cor. 5:19. There are many interpretations of this verse. I had come to think mine was unique, if I could back it up.
I have to start with a translation, taken literally from the Greek: "That is that God was in Christ the world reconciling to himself not reckoning to them the trespasses of them and having put in us the message of reconciliation."
The word reconcile is often equated with justification, and this is the verse used to prove it, because it supposedly defines reconciliation with non-imputation of sins. Reference is made to Psalm 32:2, but that psalm is spoken by David, a believer, and the non-imputation is toward believers.
I agree somewhat with Lenski that reconcile is used in two ways. This first way is not justification. Furthermore, the imputation / reckoning is not about the imputation of Christ's righteousness, but literally this: not reckoning to them the trespasses of them, because the trespasses are reckoned to Christ.
I think too little is made of a parallel between verse 19 and 21. Verse 21 explains and augments verse 19: "The one not knowing sin on behalf of us sin he made that we might become the righteousness of God in him." As in verse 21, verse 19 is about Christ taking on our sins and the sins of the world (John 1:29). The purpose was that "we might become the righteousness of God in him," not that all have become the righteousness of God in him, as the UOJists proclaim. I don't recall who said it, maybe Aegidius Hunnius, but nowhere in Scripture is the righteousness of Christ imputed without faith.
Phil 3:9 bolsters this: "And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith."
Of course, the UOJists will says that is subjective justification, and does not disprove universal justification, but a proper reading of 2 Cor. 5:19 does when compared with all of Scripture. Nowhere is Christ's righteousness imputed without faith except in a spurious reading of 2 Cor. 5:19.
This shined brightly when I saw your posts again from Justification and Rome, p. 72
"When does the imputation of Christ's righteousness take place? It did not take place when Christ, by doing and suffering, finished the work of atonement and reconciled the world to God. Then and there, when the sins of the world were imputed to Him and He took them, Christ became our righteousness and procured for us remission of sin, justification, and eternal life. 'By thus making satisfaction He procured and merited (acquisivit et promeruit) for each and every man remission of all sins, exemption from all punishments of sin, grace and peace with God, eternal righteousness and salvation.'"
"But the imputation of Christ's righteousness to the sinner takes place when the Holy Spirit brings him to faith through Baptism and the Word of the Gospel. Our sins were imputed to Christ at His suffering and death, imputed objectively after He, by His active and passive obedience, fulfilled and procured all righteousness for us. But the imputation of His righteousness to us takes place when we are brought to faith."
This is stated so beautifully and fully comports with my interpretation of 2 Cor. 5:19, that it is about the imputation of the world's sins to Christ, not the imputation of Christ's righteousness to the world, a matter that requires faith in the procured and promised forgiveness of sins. Verse 20 concerns this latter reconciliation when it says: "Be ye reconciled."
Blessed New Year to you.
